partly: (Pondering)
In a discussion group we were discussing TTT and I said that Tolkien had a "rather byzantine writing style" and some one wrote back and said:

Tolkien's text can definitely get convoluted, but I don't think
Byzantine is *quite* the allusion that works best. ;)


Which is fine. But I really want to know why. I realize that Byzantine is used in describing architecture and painting and that it isn't a term that's usually used for writing, so maybe that's the concern. Perhaps it is the religious connotations that go with Byzantine that was the problem. Maybe, from their experience, Byzantine carries with it negative implications that I didn't intend. But why put "quite" in the little ** symbols? And I didn't say that Tolkien was convoluted, I used Byzantine to reflect the layered and intricate wording that Tolkien uses, especially in his dialog... obviously this person got something else from it. And I'd like to know what.

I suppose I could write them and find out, but I really don't want to get into a discussion of Tolkien's writing style. I'm afraid that it would seem like I'm disagreeing with them rather than simply looking for reasonings. I happen to like the allusion, but I'm won't use it if it's wrong or misleading.

*sigh*

Not that I obsess over little things.
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